They "don't ask (most)Albanians" to vote because they've boycotted elections for the past 20 years, instead using terrorism and big power intervention to get what they want.
why they don't ask Albanians to vote? Would that make any sense
in this situation? What a stupid
rhetorical question.
Second, why do they ask anyone for the permission to do it? Kosovo Serbs are Serbs and they live in their own country
and should vote. Call it a 'private poll' research, marketing to those NATO guys...what should anybody care, ask for permission and bother finding out lawful prerogative?
Which law-whose law?!Of the Kosovo 'state'?
“ … Serbia … organize elections only in the Serbian enclaves in Kosova, given that they claim that all of Kosova is Serbia. … should be trying to organize election over all of Kosova since it claims that Kosova Albanians are Serbian citizens….”
It is very simple, really - Serbia is giving a chance to its loyal citizens to exercise their right to vote. Loyal Serb citizens of Albanian ethnicity are welcome to vote, but loyalty of most of the ethnic Albanians is elsewhere …
"... but no country can have elections within another soverign state."
That may be so, but could you please explain to me why it would be so bad an idea? It is not like the country in question is obligated to recognize the results, but if the foreign country/government wants to know how certain people feels about an election issue, that would be their problem, not the local country's problem.
What on Earth would say the French government have against Denmark setting up polling stations in Paris asking the French who they believed should be prime minister in Denmark?
I think this is more proof that the UN is biased against Serbia and the Serbs. What the Serbian State is asking here is no different to what many countries already do. I am a UK citizen and I know that on a number of occasions our government has taken votes from expats living abroad and this is accepted and is something many countries do on a regular basis.
So, why can't individuals that regard themselves as Serbian citizens and are regarded as such by the Serbian state, living within Kosovo, vote in elections for the leader of their mother country as other country's nationals have done whilst residing abroad?
Hypocrisy, might be one answer.
Last point as it was mentioned by someone in another post that it's owed. My deepest and most sincere applogies as a UK citizen for the belligerent actions of my country against the Serbian State and its people in 1999.
Never has been much I could personally do about it but attempt to inform people of the truth as I know it.
I was wondering why is Serbia trying to organize elections only in the Serbian enclaves in Kosova, given that they claim that all of Kosova is Serbia. By that logic then the Serbian state should be trying to organize election over all of Kosova since it claims that Kosova Albanians are Serbian citizens. So why is then one ethnicity( the Albanian ethnicity) denied the right to vote in the Serbian elections when Serbia itself claims Kosova is Serbia? I can't help but wonder if again we aren't dealing with double standards and attitudes of Albanians as second class citizens, who are not worthy to cast a vote, coming from the Serbian state. Or is it because the Serbian state has realized that they can no longer have sovereignty over those parts of Kosova that are inhabited by Albanians, but still has some hope that it will have full sovereignty over Serbian inhabited areas once UNMIK leaves? Is Serbia actually working towards partition, while not publicly admitting it? I think Serbia is breaking 1244 (planning elections without UNMIK approval) while not admitting it wants to partition Kosova, because of a false hope that someday it will have the whole Kosova under its sovereignty and rid once and forever its Albanian problem.
I think this is more proof that the UN is biased against Serbia and the Serbs. What the Serbian State is asking here is no different to what many countries already do. I am a UK citizen and I know that on a number of occasions our government has taken votes from expats living abroad and this is accepted and is something many countries do on a regular basis.
So, why can't individuals that regard themselves as Serbian citizens and are regarded as such by the Serbian state, living within Kosovo, vote in elections for the leader of their mother country as other country's nationals have done whilst residing abroad?
Hypocrisy, might be one answer.
Last point as it was mentioned by someone in another post that it's owed. My deepest and most sincere applogies as a UK citizen for the belligerent actions of my country against the Serbian State and its people in 1999.
Never has been much I could personally do about it but attempt to inform people of the truth as I know it.
I was wondering why is Serbia trying to organize elections only in the Serbian enclaves in Kosova, given that they claim that all of Kosova is Serbia. By that logic then the Serbian state should be trying to organize election over all of Kosova since it claims that Kosova Albanians are Serbian citizens. So why is then one ethnicity( the Albanian ethnicity) denied the right to vote in the Serbian elections when Serbia itself claims Kosova is Serbia? I can't help but wonder if again we aren't dealing with double standards and attitudes of Albanians as second class citizens, who are not worthy to cast a vote, coming from the Serbian state. Or is it because the Serbian state has realized that they can no longer have sovereignty over those parts of Kosova that are inhabited by Albanians, but still has some hope that it will have full sovereignty over Serbian inhabited areas once UNMIK leaves? Is Serbia actually working towards partition, while not publicly admitting it? I think Serbia is breaking 1244 (planning elections without UNMIK approval) while not admitting it wants to partition Kosova, because of a false hope that someday it will have the whole Kosova under its sovereignty and rid once and forever its Albanian problem.
“ … Serbia … organize elections only in the Serbian enclaves in Kosova, given that they claim that all of Kosova is Serbia. … should be trying to organize election over all of Kosova since it claims that Kosova Albanians are Serbian citizens….”
It is very simple, really - Serbia is giving a chance to its loyal citizens to exercise their right to vote. Loyal Serb citizens of Albanian ethnicity are welcome to vote, but loyalty of most of the ethnic Albanians is elsewhere …
They "don't ask (most)Albanians" to vote because they've boycotted elections for the past 20 years, instead using terrorism and big power intervention to get what they want.
"... but no country can have elections within another soverign state."
That may be so, but could you please explain to me why it would be so bad an idea? It is not like the country in question is obligated to recognize the results, but if the foreign country/government wants to know how certain people feels about an election issue, that would be their problem, not the local country's problem.
What on Earth would say the French government have against Denmark setting up polling stations in Paris asking the French who they believed should be prime minister in Denmark?
why they don't ask Albanians to vote? Would that make any sense
in this situation? What a stupid
rhetorical question.
Second, why do they ask anyone for the permission to do it? Kosovo Serbs are Serbs and they live in their own country
and should vote. Call it a 'private poll' research, marketing to those NATO guys...what should anybody care, ask for permission and bother finding out lawful prerogative?
Which law-whose law?!Of the Kosovo 'state'?
I was wondering why is Serbia trying to organize elections only in the Serbian enclaves in Kosova, given that they claim that all of Kosova is Serbia. By that logic then the Serbian state should be trying to organize election over all of Kosova since it claims that Kosova Albanians are Serbian citizens. So why is then one ethnicity( the Albanian ethnicity) denied the right to vote in the Serbian elections when Serbia itself claims Kosova is Serbia? I can't help but wonder if again we aren't dealing with double standards and attitudes of Albanians as second class citizens, who are not worthy to cast a vote, coming from the Serbian state. Or is it because the Serbian state has realized that they can no longer have sovereignty over those parts of Kosova that are inhabited by Albanians, but still has some hope that it will have full sovereignty over Serbian inhabited areas once UNMIK leaves? Is Serbia actually working towards partition, while not publicly admitting it? I think Serbia is breaking 1244 (planning elections without UNMIK approval) while not admitting it wants to partition Kosova, because of a false hope that someday it will have the whole Kosova under its sovereignty and rid once and forever its Albanian problem.
why they don't ask Albanians to vote? Would that make any sense
in this situation? What a stupid
rhetorical question.
Second, why do they ask anyone for the permission to do it? Kosovo Serbs are Serbs and they live in their own country
and should vote. Call it a 'private poll' research, marketing to those NATO guys...what should anybody care, ask for permission and bother finding out lawful prerogative?
Which law-whose law?!Of the Kosovo 'state'?
I think this is more proof that the UN is biased against Serbia and the Serbs. What the Serbian State is asking here is no different to what many countries already do. I am a UK citizen and I know that on a number of occasions our government has taken votes from expats living abroad and this is accepted and is something many countries do on a regular basis.
So, why can't individuals that regard themselves as Serbian citizens and are regarded as such by the Serbian state, living within Kosovo, vote in elections for the leader of their mother country as other country's nationals have done whilst residing abroad?
Hypocrisy, might be one answer.
Last point as it was mentioned by someone in another post that it's owed. My deepest and most sincere applogies as a UK citizen for the belligerent actions of my country against the Serbian State and its people in 1999.
Never has been much I could personally do about it but attempt to inform people of the truth as I know it.
"... but no country can have elections within another soverign state."
That may be so, but could you please explain to me why it would be so bad an idea? It is not like the country in question is obligated to recognize the results, but if the foreign country/government wants to know how certain people feels about an election issue, that would be their problem, not the local country's problem.
What on Earth would say the French government have against Denmark setting up polling stations in Paris asking the French who they believed should be prime minister in Denmark?
“ … Serbia … organize elections only in the Serbian enclaves in Kosova, given that they claim that all of Kosova is Serbia. … should be trying to organize election over all of Kosova since it claims that Kosova Albanians are Serbian citizens….”
It is very simple, really - Serbia is giving a chance to its loyal citizens to exercise their right to vote. Loyal Serb citizens of Albanian ethnicity are welcome to vote, but loyalty of most of the ethnic Albanians is elsewhere …
They "don't ask (most)Albanians" to vote because they've boycotted elections for the past 20 years, instead using terrorism and big power intervention to get what they want.
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